Question:
No, I do not yet have my hearing aids, could be here in 2 weeks or less. <tlsh…@concentric.net> wrote in message
news:u54oa0hbdevqhb4hbqa1e73o7rq9tged27@4ax.com… – Hide quoted text — Show quoted text -> On Wed, 19 May 2004 08:04:03 -0400, "R Benner" > <bennerBO…@personainternet.com> took a very strange rock and > inscribed these words: > >The numbers are pretty damned meaningless. I am of the opinion that what is > >relevant is function. Using the second calculation, I only have a loss of > >12%, sounds quite mild, yet I am having a very hard time functioning in the > >REAL WORLD. > Is that with hearing aids? I have an approximately 50-55 dB. (50 > percent from what I’m told) hearing loss and with hearing aids, have > moderate difficulty. However, I’ve been dealing with this all my life > so maybe experience helps. I often go quite comfortably without > hearing aids as long as I’m not working or having to otherwise > converse with hearing nonsigners. > — > Therese Shellabarger / The Roving Reporter – Civis Mundi > tlsh…@concentric.net / http://tlshell.cnc.net/
Response:
<arlen…@rainierconnect.com> wrote in message
news:10alpmcfurthved@corp.supernews.com… > I found this while searching AMA hearing loss standard: > a.. The committee on hearing and equilibrium of the American Academy of > Otolaryngology has established a computational method to determine hearing > handicap. It recognizes that hearing thresholds of 500, 1000, 2000, and 3000 > Hz are critical for understanding human conversation, and it uses only those > frequencies in the calculation of hearing handicap. The method also > recognizes that overall hearing acuity is disproportionately determined by > the acuity of the better-hearing ear. Consequently, the calculation heavily > favors the better-hearing over the poorer-hearing ear. The method recognizes > a 25-dB threshold or better to be normal. The computation is performed as > follows: > a.. Compute the sum of the hearing threshold levels at 500, 1000, 2000, > and 3000 Hz and divide by 4. Subtract 25 from the average. Multiply the > result by 1.5 to produce the percent monaural hearing impairment.
My hearing loss is 0dB @ 500 and 1000, 40dB @ 2000, 60 dB @ 3000, and 80dB @ 4000 in both ears. I have difficulty understanding many people talking. According to the formula my hearing loss is 0%. I think the formula is misleading.
Response:
You may have missed earlier posts. The AMA formula is for determining payment in comp and injury cases not for figuring out your personal disability. It’s not a disability rating. For that, try the same formula using 1,2,3 kHz or .5- 4 kHz with or without the 25 dB fence. O >> a.. Compute the sum of the hearing threshold levels at 500, 1000, 2000, >> and 3000 Hz and divide by 4. Subtract 25 from the average. Multiply the >> result by 1.5 to produce the percent monaural hearing impairment. >My hearing loss is 0dB @ 500 and 1000, 40dB @ 2000, 60 dB @ 3000, >and 80dB @ 4000 in both ears. I have difficulty understanding many >people talking. According to the formula my hearing loss is 0%. >I think the formula is misleading.
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Response:
True, but useless info if one is involved in compensation and a hearing impairment formula is used to determine "pay-out" On Wed, 19 May 2004 07:06:08 +0100, "SW" <stevew_21_deletethis…@hotmail.com> wrote: ><arlen…@rainierconnect.com> wrote in message >news:10al5cmiaclno1b@corp.supernews.com… >> How is one’s hearing loss determined as a percent? >Coincidentally I asked a similar question on the RNID forum a few days ago. >Someone replied wth the following link which explains all >http://www.hearinglosshelp.com/decibelsvspercent.htm
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Response:
You are confusing hearing disability ( a measure of the problem one has with hearing loss) and hearing "impairment" which is strictly a legal definition. Read the preamble to the ASHA position paper on hearing impairment. On Wed, 19 May 2004 02:21:51 GMT, Susan <hearinghel…@verizon.net> wrote: – Hide quoted text — Show quoted text ->I tried 20 (considered normal hearing) as a threshold for both ears, all >frequencies and got 28.8%, that would be "over a quarter hearing loss" >with makes absoultly no sense, means nothing and confirms my previous >post. >It has to be very clear: HEARING LOSS is objective, LOUDNESS PERCEPTION >is subjective. Percentages don’t figure into hearing loss while they can >into loudness perception. If I played a tone and then a softer 2nd >tone, and asked you how much softer it was, you could say 15% softer and >everyone would have a similar relative number to how each tone is >related to the loudest. But that has nothing to do with hearing loss. >In article <40aabe08.57208…@news-server.twcny.rr.com>, bschler1 >@twcny.rr.com says… >> Holy Moly. >> Sounds like one of those magic tricks that always ends up with the >> number 13.
>> Barry >> User <hu…@humma.com> wrote: >> >AMA Guides to physical impairment: >> >A legal definition, but one widely accepted >> >add thresholds at .5,1,2,&3k divide by 4; multiply by 1.5 >> >Do for each ear ( monaural), then multiply the better ( less) score by >> >5 ; add the worse ear and divide by 6. >> >This equals percent binaural impairment. >> >Doesn’t mean much, but it’s a standard . >> >On Tue, 18 May 2004 16:00:44 -0700, <arlen…@rainierconnect.com> >> >wrote: >> >>How is one’s hearing loss determined as a percent? >> > Posted Via Usenet.com Premium Usenet Newsgroup Services >> >———————————————————- >> > ** SPEED ** RETENTION ** COMPLETION ** ANONYMITY ** >> >———————————————————- >> > http://www.usenet.com
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Response:
On Wed, 19 May 2004 08:04:03 -0400, "R Benner" <bennerBO…@personainternet.com> took a very strange rock and inscribed these words: >The numbers are pretty damned meaningless. I am of the opinion that what is >relevant is function. Using the second calculation, I only have a loss of >12%, sounds quite mild, yet I am having a very hard time functioning in the >REAL WORLD.
Is that with hearing aids? I have an approximately 50-55 dB. (50 percent from what I’m told) hearing loss and with hearing aids, have moderate difficulty. However, I’ve been dealing with this all my life so maybe experience helps. I often go quite comfortably without hearing aids as long as I’m not working or having to otherwise converse with hearing nonsigners. — Therese Shellabarger / The Roving Reporter – Civis Mundi tlsh…@concentric.net / http://tlshell.cnc.net/
Response:
AMA Guides to physical impairment: A legal definition, but one widely accepted add thresholds at .5,1,2,&3k divide by 4; multiply by 1.5 Do for each ear ( monaural), then multiply the better ( less) score by 5 ; add the worse ear and divide by 6. This equals percent binaural impairment. Doesn’t mean much, but it’s a standard . On Tue, 18 May 2004 16:00:44 -0700, <arlen…@rainierconnect.com> wrote: >How is one’s hearing loss determined as a percent?
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Response:
Can you please provide an accurate cut and paste of this calculation. "User" <hu…@humma.com> wrote in message
news:ubala0pqjq84j1h98von9cd0h5a5l3bm36@4ax.com… – Hide quoted text — Show quoted text -> AMA Guides to physical impairment: > A legal definition, but one widely accepted > add thresholds at .5,1,2,&3k divide by 4; multiply by 1.5 > Do for each ear ( monaural), then multiply the better ( less) score by > 5 ; add the worse ear and divide by 6. > This equals percent binaural impairment. > Doesn’t mean much, but it’s a standard . > On Tue, 18 May 2004 16:00:44 -0700, <arlen…@rainierconnect.com> > wrote: > >How is one’s hearing loss determined as a percent? > Posted Via Usenet.com Premium Usenet Newsgroup Services > ———————————————————- > ** SPEED ** RETENTION ** COMPLETION ** ANONYMITY ** > ———————————————————- > http://www.usenet.com
Response:
Holy Moly. Sounds like one of those magic tricks that always ends up with the number 13.
Barry – Hide quoted text — Show quoted text -User <hu…@humma.com> wrote: >AMA Guides to physical impairment: >A legal definition, but one widely accepted >add thresholds at .5,1,2,&3k divide by 4; multiply by 1.5 >Do for each ear ( monaural), then multiply the better ( less) score by >5 ; add the worse ear and divide by 6. >This equals percent binaural impairment. >Doesn’t mean much, but it’s a standard . >On Tue, 18 May 2004 16:00:44 -0700, <arlen…@rainierconnect.com> >wrote: >>How is one’s hearing loss determined as a percent? > Posted Via Usenet.com Premium Usenet Newsgroup Services >———————————————————- > ** SPEED ** RETENTION ** COMPLETION ** ANONYMITY ** >———————————————————- > http://www.usenet.com
Response:
I tried 20 (considered normal hearing) as a threshold for both ears, all frequencies and got 28.8%, that would be "over a quarter hearing loss" with makes absoultly no sense, means nothing and confirms my previous post. It has to be very clear: HEARING LOSS is objective, LOUDNESS PERCEPTION is subjective. Percentages don’t figure into hearing loss while they can into loudness perception. If I played a tone and then a softer 2nd tone, and asked you how much softer it was, you could say 15% softer and everyone would have a similar relative number to how each tone is related to the loudest. But that has nothing to do with hearing loss. In article <40aabe08.57208…@news-server.twcny.rr.com>, bschler1 @twcny.rr.com says… – Hide quoted text — Show quoted text -> Holy Moly. > Sounds like one of those magic tricks that always ends up with the > number 13.
> Barry > User <hu…@humma.com> wrote: > >AMA Guides to physical impairment: > >A legal definition, but one widely accepted > >add thresholds at .5,1,2,&3k divide by 4; multiply by 1.5 > >Do for each ear ( monaural), then multiply the better ( less) score by > >5 ; add the worse ear and divide by 6. > >This equals percent binaural impairment. > >Doesn’t mean much, but it’s a standard . > >On Tue, 18 May 2004 16:00:44 -0700, <arlen…@rainierconnect.com> > >wrote: > >>How is one’s hearing loss determined as a percent? > > Posted Via Usenet.com Premium Usenet Newsgroup Services > >———————————————————- > > ** SPEED ** RETENTION ** COMPLETION ** ANONYMITY ** > >———————————————————- > > http://www.usenet.com
Response:
What do you expect, probably invented by a Doctor. Go figure. "Barry" <bschl…@twcny.rr.com> wrote in message
news:40aabe08.57208544@news-server.twcny.rr.com… – Hide quoted text — Show quoted text -> Holy Moly. > Sounds like one of those magic tricks that always ends up with the > number 13.
> Barry > User <hu…@humma.com> wrote: > >AMA Guides to physical impairment: > >A legal definition, but one widely accepted > >add thresholds at .5,1,2,&3k divide by 4; multiply by 1.5 > >Do for each ear ( monaural), then multiply the better ( less) score by > >5 ; add the worse ear and divide by 6. > >This equals percent binaural impairment. > >Doesn’t mean much, but it’s a standard . > >On Tue, 18 May 2004 16:00:44 -0700, <arlen…@rainierconnect.com> > >wrote: > >>How is one’s hearing loss determined as a percent? > > Posted Via Usenet.com Premium Usenet Newsgroup Services > >———————————————————- > > ** SPEED ** RETENTION ** COMPLETION ** ANONYMITY ** > >———————————————————- > > http://www.usenet.com
Response:
I found this while searching AMA hearing loss standard: a.. The committee on hearing and equilibrium of the American Academy of Otolaryngology has established a computational method to determine hearing handicap. It recognizes that hearing thresholds of 500, 1000, 2000, and 3000 Hz are critical for understanding human conversation, and it uses only those frequencies in the calculation of hearing handicap. The method also recognizes that overall hearing acuity is disproportionately determined by the acuity of the better-hearing ear. Consequently, the calculation heavily favors the better-hearing over the poorer-hearing ear. The method recognizes a 25-dB threshold or better to be normal. The computation is performed as follows: a.. Compute the sum of the hearing threshold levels at 500, 1000, 2000, and 3000 Hz and divide by 4. Subtract 25 from the average. Multiply the result by 1.5 to produce the percent monaural hearing impairment. a.. If the monaural percent figure is the same for both ears, that figure expresses the percent handicap. If the percent monaural hearing impairment is different between ears, apply the formula (5 x % of better ear) + (1 x % poorer ear) divided by 6 = percent hearing handicap. a.. The AMA’s Guides to the Evaluation of Permanent Impairment provides tables that can convert percent binaural handicap into "percent disability of the whole person." "Susan" <hearinghel…@verizon.net> wrote in message
news:MPG.1b148ec3affdd0dd989704@news.verizon.net… – Hide quoted text — Show quoted text -> I tried 20 (considered normal hearing) as a threshold for both ears, all > frequencies and got 28.8%, that would be "over a quarter hearing loss" > with makes absoultly no sense, means nothing and confirms my previous > post. > It has to be very clear: HEARING LOSS is objective, LOUDNESS PERCEPTION > is subjective. Percentages don’t figure into hearing loss while they can > into loudness perception. If I played a tone and then a softer 2nd > tone, and asked you how much softer it was, you could say 15% softer and > everyone would have a similar relative number to how each tone is > related to the loudest. But that has nothing to do with hearing loss. > In article <40aabe08.57208…@news-server.twcny.rr.com>, bschler1 > @twcny.rr.com says… > > Holy Moly. > > Sounds like one of those magic tricks that always ends up with the > > number 13.
> > Barry > > User <hu…@humma.com> wrote: > > >AMA Guides to physical impairment: > > >A legal definition, but one widely accepted > > >add thresholds at .5,1,2,&3k divide by 4; multiply by 1.5 > > >Do for each ear ( monaural), then multiply the better ( less) score by > > >5 ; add the worse ear and divide by 6. > > >This equals percent binaural impairment. > > >Doesn’t mean much, but it’s a standard . > > >On Tue, 18 May 2004 16:00:44 -0700, <arlen…@rainierconnect.com> > > >wrote: > > >>How is one’s hearing loss determined as a percent? > > > Posted Via Usenet.com Premium Usenet Newsgroup Services > > >———————————————————- > > > ** SPEED ** RETENTION ** COMPLETION ** ANONYMITY ** > > >———————————————————- > > > http://www.usenet.com
Response:
<arlen…@rainierconnect.com> wrote in message
news:10al5cmiaclno1b@corp.supernews.com… > How is one’s hearing loss determined as a percent?
Coincidentally I asked a similar question on the RNID forum a few days ago. Someone replied wth the following link which explains all http://www.hearinglosshelp.com/decibelsvspercent.htm
Response:
This produces a somewhat different calculation than … "A legal definition, but one widely accepted add thresholds at .5,1,2,&3k divide by 4; multiply by 1.5 Do for each ear ( monaural), then multiply the better ( less) score by 5 ; add the worse ear and divide by 6. This equals percent binaural impairment. Doesn’t mean much, but it’s a standard ." Instead of getting 49%, I get 12%. <arlen…@rainierconnect.com> wrote in message
news:10alpmcfurthved@corp.supernews.com… – Hide quoted text — Show quoted text -> I found this while searching AMA hearing loss standard: > a.. The committee on hearing and equilibrium of the American Academy of > Otolaryngology has established a computational method to determine hearing > handicap. It recognizes that hearing thresholds of 500, 1000, 2000, and 3000 > Hz are critical for understanding human conversation, and it uses only those > frequencies in the calculation of hearing handicap. The method also > recognizes that overall hearing acuity is disproportionately determined by > the acuity of the better-hearing ear. Consequently, the calculation heavily > favors the better-hearing over the poorer-hearing ear. The method recognizes > a 25-dB threshold or better to be normal. The computation is performed as > follows: > a.. Compute the sum of the hearing threshold levels at 500, 1000, 2000, > and 3000 Hz and divide by 4. Subtract 25 from the average. Multiply the > result by 1.5 to produce the percent monaural hearing impairment. > a.. If the monaural percent figure is the same for both ears, that > figure expresses the percent handicap. If the percent monaural hearing > impairment is different between ears, apply the formula (5 x % of better > ear) + (1 x % poorer ear) divided by 6 = percent hearing handicap. > a.. The AMA’s Guides to the Evaluation of Permanent Impairment provides > tables that can convert percent binaural handicap into "percent disability > of the whole person." > "Susan" <hearinghel…@verizon.net> wrote in message > news:MPG.1b148ec3affdd0dd989704@news.verizon.net… > > I tried 20 (considered normal hearing) as a threshold for both ears, all > > frequencies and got 28.8%, that would be "over a quarter hearing loss" > > with makes absoultly no sense, means nothing and confirms my previous > > post. > > It has to be very clear: HEARING LOSS is objective, LOUDNESS PERCEPTION > > is subjective. Percentages don’t figure into hearing loss while they can > > into loudness perception. If I played a tone and then a softer 2nd > > tone, and asked you how much softer it was, you could say 15% softer and > > everyone would have a similar relative number to how each tone is > > related to the loudest. But that has nothing to do with hearing loss. > > In article <40aabe08.57208…@news-server.twcny.rr.com>, bschler1 > > @twcny.rr.com says… > > > Holy Moly. > > > Sounds like one of those magic tricks that always ends up with the > > > number 13.
> > > Barry > > > User <hu…@humma.com> wrote: > > > >AMA Guides to physical impairment: > > > >A legal definition, but one widely accepted > > > >add thresholds at .5,1,2,&3k divide by 4; multiply by 1.5 > > > >Do for each ear ( monaural), then multiply the better ( less) score by > > > >5 ; add the worse ear and divide by 6. > > > >This equals percent binaural impairment. > > > >Doesn’t mean much, but it’s a standard . > > > >On Tue, 18 May 2004 16:00:44 -0700, <arlen…@rainierconnect.com> > > > >wrote: > > > >>How is one’s hearing loss determined as a percent? > > > > Posted Via Usenet.com Premium Usenet Newsgroup Services > > > >———————————————————- > > > > ** SPEED ** RETENTION ** COMPLETION ** ANONYMITY ** > > > >———————————————————- > > > > http://www.usenet.com
Response:
On Wed, 19 May 2004 02:21:51 GMT, Susan <hearinghel…@verizon.net> took a very strange rock and inscribed these words: >I tried 20 (considered normal hearing) as a threshold for both ears, all >frequencies and got 28.8%, that would be "over a quarter hearing loss" >with makes absoultly no sense, means nothing and confirms my previous >post.
I believe your result is interpreted as 28.8 percent less than "normal." Subtract that from 100 to get the percent you have. — Therese Shellabarger / The Roving Reporter – Civis Mundi tlsh…@concentric.net / http://tlshell.cnc.net/
Response:
The numbers are pretty damned meaningless. I am of the opinion that what is relevant is function. Using the second calculation, I only have a loss of 12%, sounds quite mild, yet I am having a very hard time functioning in the REAL WORLD. <tlsh…@concentric.net> wrote in message
news:3nima094o3vt061l31h70qie7s7i0ot6bd@4ax.com… – Hide quoted text — Show quoted text -> On Wed, 19 May 2004 02:21:51 GMT, Susan <hearinghel…@verizon.net> > took a very strange rock and inscribed these words: > >I tried 20 (considered normal hearing) as a threshold for both ears, all > >frequencies and got 28.8%, that would be "over a quarter hearing loss" > >with makes absoultly no sense, means nothing and confirms my previous > >post. > I believe your result is interpreted as 28.8 percent less than > "normal." Subtract that from 100 to get the percent you have. > — > Therese Shellabarger / The Roving Reporter – Civis Mundi > tlsh…@concentric.net / http://tlshell.cnc.net/
Response:
This goes to prove how little physicians and especially ENT’s really know about hearing loss. Insurance companies come up with crazy formula’s to help determine amount of disability when dealing with worker’s comp claims. If you are truly interested in determining the amount of hearing loss, you should look for information posted by audiologists or hearing scientists, not MD’s. And finally, as Susan has mentioned, there is not such thing as a percentage of hearing loss. The audiogram and decibel scale is logarithmic, not linear – Hide quoted text — Show quoted text -<arlen…@rainierconnect.com> wrote in message <news:10alpmcfurthved@corp.supernews.com>… > I found this while searching AMA hearing loss standard: > a.. The committee on hearing and equilibrium of the American Academy of > Otolaryngology has established a computational method to determine hearing > handicap. It recognizes that hearing thresholds of 500, 1000, 2000, and 3000 > Hz are critical for understanding human conversation, and it uses only those > frequencies in the calculation of hearing handicap. The method also > recognizes that overall hearing acuity is disproportionately determined by > the acuity of the better-hearing ear. Consequently, the calculation heavily > favors the better-hearing over the poorer-hearing ear. The method recognizes > a 25-dB threshold or better to be normal. The computation is performed as > follows: > a.. Compute the sum of the hearing threshold levels at 500, 1000, 2000, > and 3000 Hz and divide by 4. Subtract 25 from the average. Multiply the > result by 1.5 to produce the percent monaural hearing impairment. > a.. If the monaural percent figure is the same for both ears, that > figure expresses the percent handicap. If the percent monaural hearing > impairment is different between ears, apply the formula (5 x % of better > ear) + (1 x % poorer ear) divided by 6 = percent hearing handicap. > a.. The AMA’s Guides to the Evaluation of Permanent Impairment provides > tables that can convert percent binaural handicap into "percent disability > of the whole person." > "Susan" <hearinghel…@verizon.net> wrote in message > news:MPG.1b148ec3affdd0dd989704@news.verizon.net… > > I tried 20 (considered normal hearing) as a threshold for both ears, all > > frequencies and got 28.8%, that would be "over a quarter hearing loss" > > with makes absoultly no sense, means nothing and confirms my previous > > post. > > It has to be very clear: HEARING LOSS is objective, LOUDNESS PERCEPTION > > is subjective. Percentages don’t figure into hearing loss while they can > > into loudness perception. If I played a tone and then a softer 2nd > > tone, and asked you how much softer it was, you could say 15% softer and > > everyone would have a similar relative number to how each tone is > > related to the loudest. But that has nothing to do with hearing loss. > > In article <40aabe08.57208…@news-server.twcny.rr.com>, bschler1 > > @twcny.rr.com says… > > > Holy Moly. > > > Sounds like one of those magic tricks that always ends up with the > > > number 13.
> > > Barry > > > User <hu…@humma.com> wrote: > > > >AMA Guides to physical impairment: > > > >A legal definition, but one widely accepted > > > >add thresholds at .5,1,2,&3k divide by 4; multiply by 1.5 > > > >Do for each ear ( monaural), then multiply the better ( less) score by > > > >5 ; add the worse ear and divide by 6. > > > >This equals percent binaural impairment. > > > >Doesn’t mean much, but it’s a standard . > > > >On Tue, 18 May 2004 16:00:44 -0700, <arlen…@rainierconnect.com> > > > >wrote: > > > >>How is one’s hearing loss determined as a percent? > > > > Posted Via Usenet.com Premium Usenet Newsgroup Services > > > >———————————————————- > > > > ** SPEED ** RETENTION ** COMPLETION ** ANONYMITY ** > > > >———————————————————- > > > > http://www.usenet.com
Response:
In article <c8etgi$35…@news8.svr.pol.co.uk>, "SW" <stevew_21_deletethis…@hotmail.com> wrote: > http://www.hearinglosshelp.com/decibelsvspercent.htm
What a terrific link. Thanks.
Response:
"R Benner" <bennerBO…@personainternet.com> wrote in message
news:10amjmn74ls2i0c@corp.supernews.com… – Hide quoted text — Show quoted text -> The numbers are pretty damned meaningless. I am of the opinion that what is > relevant is function. Using the second calculation, I only have a loss of > 12%, sounds quite mild, yet I am having a very hard time functioning in the > REAL WORLD. > <tlsh…@concentric.net> wrote in message > news:3nima094o3vt061l31h70qie7s7i0ot6bd@4ax.com… > > On Wed, 19 May 2004 02:21:51 GMT, Susan <hearinghel…@verizon.net> > > took a very strange rock and inscribed these words: > > >I tried 20 (considered normal hearing) as a threshold for both ears, all > > >frequencies and got 28.8%, that would be "over a quarter hearing loss" > > >with makes absoultly no sense, means nothing and confirms my previous > > >post. > > I believe your result is interpreted as 28.8 percent less than > > "normal." Subtract that from 100 to get the percent you have. > > — > > Therese Shellabarger / The Roving Reporter – Civis Mundi > > tlsh…@concentric.net / http://tlshell.cnc.net/
Well for one thing, the calculation completely ignores 4000 Hz which is a BIG problem in my opinion. — JennL
Response:
Whoops, sorry.. forgot to subtract 25 from the four frequency average before multiplying by 1.5. It may not mean anything to Susan, but its the de facto medical-legal standard in most of the US. and is used for most if not all of worker’s comp proceedings…. – Hide quoted text — Show quoted text -On Tue, 18 May 2004 20:28:49 -0400, User <hu…@humma.com> wrote: >AMA Guides to physical impairment: >A legal definition, but one widely accepted >add thresholds at .5,1,2,&3k divide by 4; multiply by 1.5 >Do for each ear ( monaural), then multiply the better ( less) score by >5 ; add the worse ear and divide by 6. >This equals percent binaural impairment. >Doesn’t mean much, but it’s a standard . >On Tue, 18 May 2004 16:00:44 -0700, <arlen…@rainierconnect.com> >wrote: >>How is one’s hearing loss determined as a percent? > Posted Via Usenet.com Premium Usenet Newsgroup Services >———————————————————- > ** SPEED ** RETENTION ** COMPLETION ** ANONYMITY ** >———————————————————- > http://www.usenet.com
Posted Via Usenet.com Premium Usenet Newsgroup Services ———————————————————- ** SPEED ** RETENTION ** COMPLETION ** ANONYMITY ** ———————————————————- http://www.usenet.com
Response:
How is one’s hearing loss determined as a percent?
Response:
Technically it can’t be, and anyone that tries to tell you otherwise does not grasp the concept that hearing loss is across decibels and frequencies and is not out of 100. Forgive me, it is a HUGE pet peeve. If someone asks me how to describe their hearing loss, I describe the configuration of the loss. For example: Binaurally mild sloping to moderate at 2kHz, with a steep drop to profound at 8kHz, sensorineural hearing loss. With all that information, an audiologist with no idea of the patient can get a clear idea of the hearing loss in terms of puretone thresholds. Percentages are used in speech discriminiation with a word list of 25 or 50, the number of words correctly repeated is translated to a percentage (24 out of 25 is 96%). But this is the number right, not a percentage of hearing loss. In fact, I would say that with only speech dicrimination scores, it is impossible to guess the amount or configuration of a person’s hearing loss. The standard chart is: -10 to 20 (argueably 25)dBHL——normal 15-25 ———sometimes referred to as slight 21-40 ———mild 41-55———-moderate 56-70———-moderately-severe 71-90———-severe 91 to the limits of the machine——profound Hope this helps you to become a more informed person! In article <10al5cmiacln…@corp.supernews.com>, arlen…@rainierconnect.com says… – Hide quoted text — Show quoted text -> How is one’s hearing loss determined as a percent?
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